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ASHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Sample Questions (Q114-Q119):
NEW QUESTION # 114
A claims manager needs to open a loss reserve and perform an investigation of an event. They review the patient demographics, the nature and extent of the injury, and other liability factors. Which of the following would be helpful to the claims manager in determining a loss reserve?
- A. the surgery center's claims history
- B. the patient's total medical bills
- C. comparable verdicts in the county
- D. amount of insurance allowed per occurrence
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within Health Care Risk Management practice as outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, establishing an accurate loss reserve requires an estimation of the probable financial exposure associated with a claim. A loss reserve represents the anticipated cost to resolve a claim, including indemnity payments and defense expenses.
Comparable verdicts in the county are particularly useful because they reflect jurisdiction-specific jury tendencies, local legal climate, and historical award patterns. Venue significantly influences claim valuation, as jury awards can vary substantially between counties and states. Reviewing similar case outcomes allows the claims manager to benchmark potential settlement or verdict ranges based on injury severity and liability factors.
The surgery center's claims history may inform overall risk trends but does not directly determine the value of a specific claim. The patient's total medical bills are relevant but represent only one component of damages and do not account for non-economic damages such as pain and suffering. The insurance limit per occurrence defines maximum exposure but does not guide the realistic reserve estimate unless damages approach policy limits.
Therefore, analysis of comparable local verdicts is most helpful in establishing an appropriate and defensible loss reserve.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which condition must be met for a patient to no longer be protected by EMTALA obligations of the hospital?
- A. The patient receives a diagnosis code
- B. The patient provides a caregiver contact for discharge
- C. The patient signs a satisfaction survey
- D. The patient is admittedin good faithas an inpatient (or is stabilized/appropriately transferred as applicable)
Answer: D
Explanation:
EMTALA creates federal obligations for emergency screening and stabilization/appropriate transfer when an individual presents for emergency care. CMS interpretive guidance states a hospital's EMTALA obligation ends when the individual is admitted in good faith for inpatient services(even if not stabilized), shifting responsibility to inpatient Conditions of Participation and standard malpractice frameworks. EMTALA obligations also end followingstabilizationor anappropriate transfer(with required documentation
/acceptance). Risk management objectives include tight ED documentation, clear decision points (screening complete, EMC identified, stabilization initiated, transfer accepted), and policy training to prevent EMTALA violations (which can carry major regulatory and financial consequences). The incorrect notion that EMTALA ends when contact information is provided is not supported; discharge planning is important, but it does not terminate EMTALA duties.
NEW QUESTION # 116
The risk manager is called by an administrator and told that a member of the pharmacy staff was arrested last night for illegal distribution of controlled substances. Which of the following recommendations should the risk manager make to administration?
* Verify the pre-employment background check.
* Inventory controlled drug stock.
* Interview other pharmacy staff.
* Notify the National Practitioner Data Bank.
- A. 1, 2, and 3 only
- B. 1, 3, and 4 only
- C. 1, 2, and 4 only
- D. 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, when a pharmacy staff member is arrested for illegal distribution of controlled substances, the organization must focus on immediate operational and patient safety concerns.
Verifying the pre-employment background check ensures compliance with hiring policies and identifies whether due diligence was properly conducted.
An immediate inventory of controlled drug stock is essential to detect diversion, identify discrepancies, and comply with DEA requirements for controlled substance accountability. Prompt reconciliation of medication records protects patient safety and mitigates regulatory exposure.
Interviewing other pharmacy staff supports investigation of potential diversion patterns, internal control weaknesses, and workflow vulnerabilities. This step aligns with system-based risk management and prevention of further loss.
Notification to the National Practitioner Data Bank is not automatically required based solely on an arrest.
NPDB reporting typically involves certain professional review actions, licensure restrictions, or clinical privilege actions, not merely criminal charges unless formal disciplinary action occurs.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize safeguarding controlled substances, regulatory compliance, and internal investigation. Therefore, verifying background checks, inventorying stock, and interviewing staff are appropriate recommendations.
NEW QUESTION # 117
A doctor fails to administer an indicated test, and the patient deteriorates and must be admitted. This is an example of:
- A. Risk financing error
- B. Diagnostic error (delay/omission in diagnostic process)
- C. Contracting breach
- D. Facility security event
Answer: B
Explanation:
Failing to order or perform an indicated test can represent a diagnostic process failure-an omission that delays recognition of deterioration, leading to harm and escalation of care. Risk management objectives treat diagnostic safety as a systems issue: access to decision support, timely follow-up of abnormal results, clear responsibility for test ordering and review, effective handoffs, and adequate staffing/workload conditions to avoid missed steps. Such errors are often linked to underuse in the IOM quality framework (failure to provide beneficial service) and can drive claims due to preventable worsening. Preventive strategies include standardized pathways, trigger tools for abnormal labs, closed-loop test result management, and teamwork practices that encourage escalation when clinical concern persists despite uncertainty.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Whenever possible, medication orders should be by:
- A. Verbal shorthand
- B. Color coding
- C. Dose (explicit numeric dose and units)
- D. Brand name
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ordering by cleardose(with units, route, frequency, and indication when needed) reduces ambiguity and prevents common medication errors such as wrong concentration, wrong formulation, or misunderstood shorthand. Risk management objectives emphasize "closed-loop" medication communication: standardized ordering, read-back for limited verbal orders, and minimizing abbreviations that cause confusion (sound-alike drug names, numeric mishearing like 15 vs 50). Patient safety frameworks consistently identify unclear orders as a high-frequency contributor to adverse drug events; therefore, explicit dosing is a core reliability practice.
When dose is specified precisely and entered via CPOE (preferred), organizations reduce transcription errors, improve pharmacy verification, and enable automated safety checks. Clear dosing also supports legal defensibility by documenting rational prescribing aligned with standards of care.
NEW QUESTION # 119
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